When will/did Christ return?

At first I fought against the idea that Jesus returned in 70 AD but the more I read matt 24 I just couldn’t escape it.

“Truly I tell you, this generation will certainly not pass away until all these things have happened.” Matt 24:34

Some people say that “Generation here refers to the jewish race”!

But then you get this statement:

“For the Son of Man is going to come in the glory of His Father with His angels, and WILL THEN REPAY EVERY MAN ACCORDING TO HIS DEEDS. Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in His kingdom.” Matt 16:28

I couldn’t escape the fact that He was referring all the signs of the second coming and the second coming itself to the 1st century AD

 
Also every single argument I’ve heard against this idea makes the mistake of taking allegorical and vague statements of the writings and using them to interpret or contradict literal and plain statements.
The arguments against the salvation of all make the same mistake.
 
They take plain, obviously literal statements such as “Who is the saviour of all men” and force them to say what they literally interpret obviously allegorical statements such as the parable of the the rich man and Lazarus to say.

The process of interpretation should be that the allegorical should be interpreted in light of the literal not vice versa.

 
All the time statements in the scripture concerning the coming again of Christ are obviously literal “This generation shall not pass”, “There are some amongst you that shall not taste of death” but all the arguments against it are of the type “But there have been times of greater trial and such since then”
 
Firstly how are we to quantify such a thing as trials? To some people some things are intolerable that to others are tolerable. Even the tolerance of pain varies between individuals.

Anyway the scripture uses similar statements in reference to the 1st destruction of Jerusalem by Babylon:

“I will do to you what I have never done before and will never do again.” Ezekiel 5:9

I would contend that such statements are figures of speech used to embellish a catastrophe rather literal statements.

But Jesus was not speaking in parable when he spoke to his disciples because it says “the disciples came to him privately.” This is significant because:

“He answered and said unto them, Because it is given unto you to know the mysteries of the kingdom of heaven, but to them it is not given.” Matt 13:10

What is more literal and easy to understand than these statements:

“Which must shortly take place” Revelations 1:1 and “Surely I am coming quickly” revelations 22:20.

Is 2000 odd years a quick coming? It’s longer from us to Christ than it is from Christ to Moses!
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